Kỳ thi tiếng Anh VSTEP đang ngày càng được nhiều sinh viên, học viên cao học và người đi làm lựa chọn để đáp ứng chuẩn đầu ra hoặc yêu cầu tuyển dụng. Trong bài viết dưới đây, VSTEP E-Learning sẽ cập nhật đề thi mẫu VSTEP kèm đáp án chi tiết, giúp bạn hiểu rõ cách ra đề và chủ động xây dựng lộ trình ôn tập. Cùng làm bài ngay!

Đề thi mẫu VSTEP Nghe (Listening)

PART 1-Questions 1-8 

Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B,C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space thatcorresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.

Now, let’s listen to the example. On the recording, you will hear: 

Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free, but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information. Goodbye.

On the test book, you will read: 

Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?

1. Breakfast
2. Lunch
3. Dinner
4. All

The correct answer is A. Breakfast. 

We are ready to start. First, you have sometime to look at question 1 to 8. Now listen carefully an answer question 1 to 8.

1. What is offered for free with a purchase?

1. A music CD
2. A poster
3. A script
4. A ticket

2. What does the advertisement offer for office buildings?

1. Construction plans
2. Free delivery
3. Special prices
4. Full installation

3. According to the speaker, what will happen tomorrow?

1. A street will open.
2. Bridge construction will begin.
3. Traffic will be heavy.
4. Weather conditions will be foggy.

4. What is true about the tour?

1. People can see birds from all over the world
2. It’s possible to cycle in the park
3. It lasts two hours
4. People are provided with water on the tour

5. When will the service be restored full?

1. in an hour
2. this afternoon at the latest
3. in half an hour
4. no information

6. When will the new system go into effect?

1. On Monday
2. On Tuesday
3. On Wednesday
4. On Thursday

7. What is the purpose of this announcement?

1. To give moving instructions
2. To offer free installation
3. To cancel a meeting
4. To inform employees of a delay

8. What will Mr. Howard’s report be about?

1. Research results
2. Industrial pollution
3. Local news
4. New laws

Đáp án:

1. B; 2. C; 3. B; 4. A; 5. B; 6. A; 7. D; 8. D

PART 2-Questions 9-20 

Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. In each conversation, there are four questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D. You will hear the conversations only once. 

Conservation 1: You will hear a journalist interviewing Geoff Thompson, a British sportsman.

9. Where was Geoff Thompson born?

1. In London.
2. In the North of England
3. In the South of London.
4. In Britain.

10. How did he know about karate?

1. He discovered karate by himself.
2. He’s interested in karate, owing to a sports center during a school visit.
3. His friend introduced it to him.
4. He knew it when moving to London.

11. When did he take part in the World Championships in Taiwan? 

1. In 1972.
2. In 1980.
3. In 1982.
4. After starting training with a British coach.

12. How many times has he got the World Champion?

1. Two times.
2. Three times.
3. Four times.
4. Five times.

Conversation 2. You will hear a man telephoning to talk about the job in a hotel. 

13. Which position does this hotel need?

1. A temporary staff.
2. A stable staff.
3. A part-time receptionist.
4. A full-time waiter.

14. What about the hour of work? 

1. There are two shifts and two days off.
2. There are two shifts and one day off.
3. There’s a day shift from 7 to 2 and a late shift from 4 to 11.
4. There is only the afternoon shift.

15. What does the woman mention about the uniform? 

1. It’s prepared by the hotel.
2. He needs to wear dark clothes.
3. He needs a white shirt and dark trousers.
4. He needs to wear a uniform five days a week.

16. When does he start his job? 

1. At the end of May.
2. On the 10th of May.
3. On the 10th of June.
4. On the 28th of June.

Conversation 3. Listen to part of a conversation at a university library.

17. What does the man plan to write his paper on?

1. The preservation of old books.
2. The local coal industry.
3. The famous archives librarian.
4. The collection of rare books.

18. What security procedures does the librarian tell the man he must follow?

1. Show her his note cards before leaving.
2. Show her his ID card.
3. Pay a fee.
4. Allow his ID card to be copied; sign in and out of the archives room.

19. Why did the librarian mention the age of the books?

1. They need to be handled with gloves.
2. The man can only look at photographs of them.
3. They were added to the collection recently.
4. They are valuable books.

20. How did the man collect his needed information about his paper?

1. He took a picture.
2. He scanned these images.
3. He could just look them.
4. He photocopied these books.

Đáp án:

9. B; 10. B; 11. C; 12. D; 13. A; 14. B; 15. C; 16. D; 17. B; 18. D; 19. D; 20. D

PART 3-Questions 21-35 

Directions: You will hear THREE different talks or lectures. In each talk or lecture, there are five questions. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D. You will hear the conversations only once. 

Talk/Lecture 1. You will hear a presentation about fashion at work.

21. The presenter doesn’t wear a suit because….

1. He is not an important person.
2. He wants to talk about different fashion trends.
3. The presentation is not formal.
4. He works for a fashion company.

22. According to the speaker, which statement is TRUE?

1. It’s important to look casually-dressed in public.

1. A suit is necessary when meeting clients.
2. Wearing shorts is OK, sometimes.
3. Nobody can describe the way he’s dressed.

23. What does the phrase “Dress-down Fridays” mean?

1. Employees must wear fashionable clothes on Fridays.
2. Employees can wear anything they want on Fridays.
3. Employees are allowed to wear informally on Fridays.
4. Employees are required to wear special clothes on Fridays.

24. According to the speaker, who may be the most informal dressers?

1. People working in IT
2. People working in banks.
3. People working in customer service.
4. People working with clients.

25. What does a customer feel about a man in uniform?

1. Reliable
2. Recognized
3. Expertised
4. Reassured

Talk/Lecture 2. Listen to a man talking about sleeping habits.

26. How many hours of sleep do sleep experts recommend for children?

1. Nine
2. Around ten
3. Over fourteen
4. Seven

27. Why does the brain need sleep, according to the passage?

1. To allow dreams to happen
2. To repair muscles and bones
3. To help focus and process information
4. To control hunger and energy

28. What happens when students don’t sleep well?

1. They finish homework faster
2. They become more talkative
3. They behave better in class
4. They may become more emotional

29. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for poor sleep?

1. Playing games late at night
2. Caffeine in drinks
3. Watching screens before bed
4. Reading books at night

30. What is one good habit to do before going to bed?

1. Watching action movies
2. Drinking cola
3. Doing something calming
4. Playing a game on your phone

Talk/Lecture 3. Listen to a woman talking about northern lights. 

31. Which is NOT a shape the northern lights can take?

1. Straight bands
2. Curved lines
3. Triangle shapes
4. Circular shapes

32. What does “aurora borealis” mean?

1. Northern sky
2. Dancing fire
3. Northern sunrise
4. Morning wind

33. Where are people most likely to see the northern lights?

1. In the southern parts of Africa
2. Near the Arctic Circle
3. In tropical countries
4. In cities with bright lights

34. What did people believe about the lights in the past?

1. They were made by airplanes
2. They were caused by human energy
3. They were spirits or animals
4. They were dangerous signs

35. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?

1. A legend about whales
2. The colors of the lights
3. The scientists who discovered them
4. The cause of the lights

Đáp án:

21.C; 22.B; 23.C; 24.A; 25.D; 26.B; 27.C; 28.D; 29.D; 30.C; 31.C; 32.C; 33.B; 34.C; 35.C

Đề thi mẫu VSTEP Đọc (Reading)

Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer sheet.

Passage 1 (Questions 01-10): The Truth About Sugar-Free Diets

In recent years, sugar-free diets have gained popularity, with consumers increasingly aware of the health risks linked to excessive sugar intake. From diabetes to tooth decay and weight gain, the dangers are well recognized. In response, a booming market of diet sodas, low-calorie snacks, and sugar-free products has emerged. [A] But despite their growing appeal, many of these products may not deliver the expected health benefits.

A recent study published by researchers from the Harvard T.H. Chan School of Public Health warns that some artificial sweeteners may contribute to weight gain and metabolic issues.[B] The study found that while people often turn to sugar substitutes such as aspartame or sucralose in hopes of cutting calories, these chemicals may disrupt the body’s natural hunger cues, increasing the risk of overeating and long-term weight gain.

[C] The findings also highlight that sugar-free products are often misunderstood by consumers. Though they lack sugar, they frequently contain preservatives, additives, and unhealthy fats. Some desserts marketed as “healthy” alternatives are high in trans fats – substances that have been linked to heart disease, obesity, and elevated cholesterol. The research warns that an over-reliance on “sugar-free” labels can lead to dangerous dietary shortcuts.

Nutritionist Dr. Helen Martin, one of the co-authors of the study, said the key lies in balance. “Cutting sugar alone won’t solve the problem,” she explained. “It’s not just what you remove from your diet, but what you put in. Whole, nutrient-rich foods are essential for long-term health.”

Still, for many consumers, the appeal of sugar-free products is hard to resist. In supermarkets and cafés, sugar-free items are often promoted as guilt-free options. [D] As a result, people tend to consume larger portions, a phenomenon known as the “health halo” effect. The perception that these foods are healthier leads to overeating and can undermine weight management efforts.

In the society where dieting is becoming more and more popular, the focus on “sugar-free” foods might divert attention from more general nutritional knowledge. While sugar intake has decreased in some Western countries due to public health campaigns, the availability and marketing of low-sugar or sugar-free products continue to fuel misconceptions about healthy eating.

Experts now urge a shift in mindset. Instead of chasing quick fixes, they advocate for a sustainable approach: eating a balanced diet rich in vegetables, fruits, whole grains, and lean proteins. Reducing sugar is important—but only as part of a wider, more informed nutritional strategy.

1. The word “substitutes” in passage 2 is closest in meaning to:

1. replacements
2. sugars
3. nutrients
4. vitamins

2. Why does the author mention aspartame and sucralose in paragraph 2?

1. To recommend using them in cooking
2. To show how they help reduce calories
3. To explain the popularity of sugar-free foods
4. To illustrate examples of artificial sweeteners

3. Where would the following sentence best fit?

“This assumption, however, has been proven to be misleading by scientific evidence.”

1. [A]
2. [B]
3. [C]
4. [D]

4. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of paragraph 3?

1. Sugar-free snacks are the best alternative for weight loss
2. Dieters need to avoid all fats when choosing sugar-free items
3. Sugar-free foods may still pose health risks due to other harmful ingredients
4. Artificial sweeteners are safer than sugar in all cases

5. According to paragraph 3, why can sugar-free desserts still be unhealthy?

1. They are usually made from whole grains
2. They often contain natural sweeteners
3. They are high in harmful fats and additives
4. They lack flavor and cause cravings

6. The term health halo in paragraph 4 refers to:

1. The feeling of energy after eating sugar-free food
2. The benefit of natural sugars over added sugars
3. The belief that certain foods are healthy, leading to overeating
4. A special category of health food in grocery stores

7. According to paragraph 4, what behavior can the “health halo” effect cause?

1. Reduced appetite
2. Careful food tracking
3. Increased calorie intake
4. Overconsumption due to false assumptions

8. What is the author’s main point in paragraph 5?

1. Avoid fruit and grains in sugar-free diets
2. Focus on balanced nutrition, not just sugar content
3. Use food labels to choose low-carb foods
4. Exercise is more important than dieting

9. What does the author suggest about sugar-free labels?

1. They should be removed from products
2. There are not enough to determine if a food is healthy
3. They guarantee weight loss results
4. They are useful for tracking proteins

10. What can be inferred from the passage about artificial sweeteners?

1. They are banned in most countries
2. They taste better than natural sugar
3. They are required in weight-loss diets
4. They might negatively affect eating behavior

Đáp án:

1. A; 2. D; 3. B; 4. C; 5. C; 6. C; 7. D; 8. B; 9. B; 10. D

Passage 2 (Questions 11-20): The Secrets of Coral Reefs

Coral reefs are among the most biologically diverse ecosystems on Earth, often referred to as the “rainforests of the sea.” They host an incredible array of marine life, including fish, crustaceans, mollusks, and more. Despite their beauty and importance, these fragile ecosystems face numerous threats, many of which are caused by human activities.

Corals are actually tiny animals called polyps that belong to the phylum Cnidaria. These polyps form colonies, building massive calcium carbonate structures over time. What many people find extraordinary is that coral reefs cover less than 1% of the ocean floor but support around 25% of all marine species.

Coral reefs not only provide habitat for marine creatures but also offer vital benefits to humans. They protect coastlines from erosion by acting as natural barriers against storm surges and waves. Additionally, they contribute to the global economy through tourism and fishing. Coral reefs also hold great potential for medical advancements, as scientists study their organisms to develop treatments for diseases such as cancer and arthritis.

However, coral reefs are under threat from phenomena like coral bleaching. This occurs when corals expel the symbiotic algae that live in their tissues, causing them to turn white. Algae provide corals with much of their energy through photosynthesis, so bleaching often results in coral death. Rising sea temperatures, pollution, and overfishing are some of the primary causes of this distressing phenomenon.

Another significant issue is ocean acidification, which occurs when excess carbon dioxide dissolves into seawater. This process lowers the pH of the water, making it harder for corals to build their calcium carbonate skeletons. Without urgent intervention, coral reefs could face extinction within decades.

Just as forests on land require careful management to prevent deforestation, coral reefs need conservation efforts to survive. Governments, scientists, and local communities must work together to reduce carbon emissions and promote sustainable fishing practices, as well as establish marine protected areas. Public awareness campaigns can also encourage responsible tourism, ensuring that future generations will have the chance to marvel at the wonders of these underwater ecosystems.

11. The word “host” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.

1. produce
2. accommodate
3. threaten
4. remove

12. The author’s main point is _________.

1. to describe the ecological importance and threats to coral reefs.
2. to explain how coral reefs protect human populations.
3. to outline the process of coral bleaching in detail.
4. to emphasize the role of coral reefs in scientific research.

13. The author implies that coral reefs are unique in that _________.

1. they are made entirely of algae.
2. they cover a vast portion of the ocean floor.
3. they support a disproportionate amount of marine biodiversity.
4. they can recover quickly from environmental damage.

14. The word “barriers” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.

1. obstacles
2. shelters
3. divisions
4. filters

15. The word “their” in the third paragraph refers to _________.

1. humans
2. corals
3. coastlines
4. organisms

16. The phrase “turn white” in the fourth paragraph refers to _________.

1. the process of coral skeleton formation
2. the impact of algae on coral coloration
3. the bleaching effect caused by stress factors
4. the natural color of healthy corals

17. The author suggests that coral bleaching _________.

1. is a reversible process if addressed quickly
2. occurs naturally without human interference
3. results in the immediate death of all corals
4. is unrelated to climate change

18. The author mentions carbon dioxide to illustrate _________.

1. the main reason that caused coral reef degradation
2. the primary culprit of ocean acidification
3. the economic impact of coral reef tourism
4. the biodiversity of coral reef ecosystems

19. The term “marine protected areas” in the last paragraph refers to _________.

1. zones where fishing is banned permanently
2. B. regions designated for research on marine species
3. areas where human activities are regulated to conserve marine life
4. locations that are inaccessible to tourists

20. The author concludes that _________.

1. conservation efforts are futile in protecting coral reefs
2. humans are the primary reason for coral reef destruction
3. awareness and cooperation are essential to saving coral reefs
4. coral reefs are more resilient than most ecosystems

Đáp án:

11. B; 12. A; 13. C; 14. A; 15. B; 16. C; 17. A; 18. B; 19. C; 20. C

Passage 3: Questions 21-30

In the heart of Asia, a long-running political conflict between two neighboring countries has once again made international headlines. Tensions between Country X and Country Y have escalated in recent months, causing concern among global leaders and prompting calls for diplomatic intervention. Despite numerous peace talks and ceasefire agreements, the situation remains tense, with both nations accusing each other of violating international laws and undermining regional stability.

The roots of this conflict date back several decades to territorial disputes over land that both countries claim as their own. The area in question is rich in natural resources, including valuable minerals and water sources, making it a highly contested region. Over the years, several attempts have been made to mediate the dispute, but a lasting solution has yet to be found. In recent years, both sides have ramped up military activity in the region, heightening fears of a potential conflict that could have far-reaching consequences for neighboring countries and the international community.

As international organizations and peacekeeping forces prepare for possible interventions, many experts warn that the situation may be more complicated than it appears. The involvement of external powers, who have their own strategic interests in the region, could further fuel the conflict and make it even more difficult to resolve. Diplomatic talks, while crucial, may be insufficient if both sides are unwilling to compromise and prioritize peace over territorial ambitions.

Moreover, some analysts argue that the ongoing tension is not only a result of territorial disputes but also stems from broader political and economic factors. Both countries are vying for influence in the region, with each side seeking to assert its dominance in a rapidly changing geopolitical landscape. In this context, the conflict becomes a symbol of the larger power struggle taking place, and the stakes are much higher than a simple territorial dispute.

Despite the dire situation, there is hope that a diplomatic solution can still be reached. In recent weeks, both sides have agreed to engage in talks under the mediation of international peacekeepers, signaling a potential willingness to de-escalate the situation. However, the path to peace remains uncertain, and much will depend on the commitment of both nations to find common ground and work together for the greater good.

21. In paragraph 1, what does the phrase “causing concern among global leaders” mean?

1. It is attracting attention from world leaders.
2. It is making world leaders angry.
3. It is preventing world leaders from making decisions.
4. It is leading to economic collapse worldwide.

22. What is the main reason for the political conflict between Country X and Country Y?

1. A long-standing rivalry based on historical issues
2. A disagreement over international diplomatic alliances
3. Economic differences that affect global trade
4. Disputes over valuable land and natural resources

23. What is the author’s purpose in mentioning the “territorial disputes over land” in paragraph 2?

1. To highlight the importance of the region’s natural resources
2. To explain why the two countries are unwilling to compromise
3. To show that the conflict has been going on for a very long time
4. To demonstrate the complexity of the conflict’s historical background

24. What can the word “complicated” in line 16 be best replaced by?

1. Simple
2. Unclear
3. Challenging
4. Unlikely

25. According to paragraph 3, what makes the conflict more difficult to resolve?

1. The interference of external powers with their own agendas
2. The desire of both countries to negotiate peace
3. The willingness of both sides to compromise
4. The inability of the international community to intervene

26. Which of the following best describes the “broader political and economic factors” mentioned in paragraph 4?

1. A competition for political and economic influence between the two countries
2. The desire to protect valuable land from foreign investment
3. The need for both countries to increase their military power
4. The struggle to maintain global trade relations

27. In which space (marked A, B, C, and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?

The military build-up in the region has made neighboring countries increasingly nervous.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

28. According to paragraph 5, what does the author imply about the ongoing peace talks?

1. They are unlikely to lead to a long-lasting resolution.
2. They represent a positive step toward peace, despite the challenges.
3. They are not important to the future of the two countries.
4. They are being sabotaged by external forces.

29. Which of the following best describes the tone of the author in this passage?

1. Hopeful
2. Pessimistic
3. Critical
4. Neutral

30. Which of the following could best describe the message that the author wants to convey to readers?

1. The international community must take action to stop the conflict.
2. Resolving the territorial dispute will require more than just military intervention.
3. Peace is unlikely unless both countries agree to external mediation.
4. The situation can only be solved through peaceful negotiations and compromises.

Đáp án:

21. A; 22. B; 23. C; 24. C; 25. A; 26. A; 27. B; 28. B; 29. D; 30. D

Passage 4: Questions 31-40

The origins of human language have been the subject of intense study and debate for centuries. While there is no consensus among linguists and anthropologists regarding the exact timeline or processes involved in the emergence of language, several theories have emerged over the years. Some experts argue that language developed gradually as a way for early humans to communicate more effectively with each other, while others suggest that it arose suddenly due to a genetic mutation or a significant cognitive leap.

One of the most widely accepted theories is that language began as a form of gestural communication. Early humans may have used hand signals and body movements to express their thoughts and emotions before developing the ability to speak. Over time, these gestures would have become more complex, evolving into a fully developed system of vocal communication. Supporters of this theory argue that modern sign languages, which are used by deaf communities around the world, provide evidence of the link between gestures and language.

An alternative theory posits that language emerged suddenly due to a genetic mutation that allowed early humans to produce a wider range of sounds. According to this view, the development of the human brain, particularly the regions involved in speech production, enabled early humans to begin using vocalizations for communication. Some researchers believe that this mutation may have occurred as early as 100,000 years ago, during the time when Homo sapiens first emerged as a distinct species.

Other theories suggest that language evolved as a byproduct of socialization and the need for cooperation in early human communities. According to these theories, language was not a purposeful invention but rather a natural outcome of humans’ increasing need to work together for survival. The development of language, in this view, was driven by the growing complexity of human social structures and the need for coordinated effort in tasks such as hunting, gathering, and building shelter.

Despite the many theories about how language originated, it is clear that language has played a crucial role in shaping human societies.f From the earliest cave paintings to the invention of writing, language has been central to human culture and communication. Today, linguistic diversity is one of the most defining characteristics of human society, with thousands of different languages spoken around the world.

31. The word ‘it’ in paragraph 1 refers to:

1. Communication
2. Language
3. Origin
4. Theory

32. According to the passage, which of the following is a possible cause for the emergence of language?

1. A sudden cognitive leap
2. The need for increased social cooperation
3. A mutation in vocal cords
4. All of the above

33. The phrase ‘gradually developed’ in line 5 is closest in meaning to:

1. Quickly evolved
2. Developed over time
3. Evolved in stages
4. Became less complex

34. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the gestural communication theory?

1. It explain the start of vocalization in the emergence of language.
2. It suggests that language emerged suddenly due to a mutation.
3. It is supported by evidence from modern sign languages.
4. It is the most widely accepted theory among linguists.

35. According to the passage, what is one piece of evidence for the gestural communication theory?

1. The complexity of modern human language
2. The presence of cave paintings from early humans
3. The use of sign language by deaf communities
4. The discovery of ancient vocalization tools

36. What is meant by “a genetic mutation” in the context of the second theory?

1. A random change in the genetic code that allowed for more complex communication.
2. A purposeful alteration in human DNA to facilitate language.
3. A shift in human culture that led to the need for new sounds.
4. An adaptation to environmental changes that enhanced speech production.

37. Which of the following statements would support the theory that language developed as a social tool?

1. Language evolved from gestures used in early human societies.
2. Humans needed to work together for survival, leading to the development of communication.
3. Humans were able to make a wide variety of sounds, improving vocal communication.
4. The development of language was tied to the creation of written forms of communication.

38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a theory for the origin of language?

1. Language arose due to a genetic mutation.
2. Language began as a means of social cooperation.
3. Language was invented as a tool for written communication.
4. Language developed from gestural communication.

39. Which conclusion can be drawn from the passage?

1. Language is a unique trait found in certain human societies.
2. There is no single, universally accepted theory about the origin of language.
3. Language evolved gradually over thousands of years without any sudden changes.
4. Language is mostly a product of written communication and culture.

40. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?

1. A presentation of different theories followed by an analysis of their strengths and weaknesses.
2. A discussion of the role of language in society, followed by an exploration of its origins.
3. An explanation of the importance of language, followed by a list of competing theories.
4. A general overview of the history of language, followed by a discussion of its impact.

Đáp án:

31. B; 32. D; 33. B; 34. B; 35. C; 36. A; 37. B; 38. C; 39. B; 40. C

Đề thi mẫu VSTEP Viết (Writing)

Time: 60 minutes

Number of questions: 2

Task 1: You should spend about 20 minutes on this task

English pen friend, Paul. He asked you about your TV in your country. Read part of his email below.

One of my hobbies is watching TV. There are many fantastic programs for me to watch. Sometimes I can spend my whole day watching TV. Could you tell me about TV in your country? Are the programs interesting to you? What is your favourite TV program? What is that program about? How much TV do you watch every day? Do people in your country watch too much TV these days?

I’m looking forward to hearing from you soon.

Write an email responding to Paul. You should write at least 120 words. You do not need to include your name or addresses.

Task 2: You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

Read the following text from an article about urbanization.

“Urbanization is increasing rapidly worldwide, with more people moving to cities than ever before. Some argue that this trend brings economic growth and development, while others believe it leads to overcrowded cities and environmental problems.”

Write an essay to an educated reader discussing the effects of urbanization on cities and their inhabitants.

Include reasons and relevant examples to support your answer. You should write at least 250 words.

Đề thi mẫu VSTEP Nói (Speaking)

Time: 12 minutes

Number of questions: 3

Part 1: Social Interaction (3’)

Let’s talk about your daily routine.

• What time do you usually wake up in the morning?
• Do you prefer to follow a routine or be spontaneous during the day?
• What part of your daily routine do you enjoy the most?

Let’s talk about food.

• What kind of food do you like to eat?
• Do you prefer home-cooked meals or eating out?
• Do you think it’s important to eat healthy food? Why or why not?

Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’)

Situation: A group of colleagues is planning to organize a team-building event. They are considering three types of activities: a cooking competition, a sports day, and a quiz game. Which activity do you think would be the most enjoyable and beneficial for the team? Why?

Part 3: Topic Development (5’)

Topic: The importance of physical exercise for teenagers.

Physical exercise

• improves health
• builds discipline
• enhances social skills
• [your own ideas]

Additional questions:

• How important do you think sports are for teenagers’ development?
• Do you think schools should offer more physical education classes? Why or why not?
• What role do parents play in encouraging teenagers to stay physically active?

Cách sử dụng đề thi mẫu VSTEP để ôn tập hiệu quả

Đề thi mẫu VSTEP sẽ phát huy tối đa hiệu quả nếu người học biết cách khai thác đúng mục đích và có chiến lược ôn luyện phù hợp. Dưới đây là những nguyên tắc quan trọng giúp bạn luyện đề thông minh và nâng cao kết quả thi.

• Luyện đề trong điều kiện giống phòng thi thật: Khi làm đề thi mẫu VSTEP, hãy canh thời gian nghiêm túc và hoàn thành bài thi liên tục như khi thi thật. Điều này giúp bạn làm quen với áp lực thời gian, rèn sự tập trung và tránh bỡ ngỡ trong ngày thi chính thức.
• Phân tích kỹ đáp án và lỗi sai sau mỗi đề: Không nên chỉ xem mình làm đúng bao nhiêu câu, mà cần dành thời gian phân tích vì sao sai và vì sao đáp án đúng. Việc này giúp bạn nhận diện điểm yếu, tránh lặp lại lỗi cũ và hiểu rõ cách ra đề VSTEP.
• Kết hợp luyện đề với ôn từng kỹ năng riêng lẻ: Sau khi làm đề tổng hợp, hãy tách từng kỹ năng để luyện sâu hơn. Ví dụ, luyện lại phần Listening còn yếu hoặc chỉnh sửa bài Writing dựa trên bài mẫu, từ đó cải thiện đồng đều cả bốn kỹ năng.
• Luyện đề theo lộ trình phù hợp với trình độ: Không nên làm đề quá khó ngay từ đầu. Hãy bắt đầu với đề phù hợp trình độ hiện tại, sau đó tăng dần độ khó để theo dõi sự tiến bộ và chuẩn bị tốt cho trình độ mục tiêu B1, B2 hoặc C1.
• Ghi chú và ôn tập từ vựng, cấu trúc trong đề thi mẫu: Trong quá trình luyện đề, hãy ghi lại các từ vựng, cụm từ và cấu trúc thường gặp. Đây là nguồn học liệu sát đề, giúp bạn mở rộng vốn từ và nâng cao khả năng diễn đạt trong Writing và Speaking.

Để thích nghi với hình thức thi VSTEP trên máy tính, bạn nên luyện đề chuẩn format thi thật, giúp làm quen với giao diện, thao tác sử dụng tai nghe, micro và cách phân bổ thời gian cho từng kỹ năng. Khóa luyện VSTEP online sẽ giúp bạn rèn luyện đúng cấu trúc đề thi mới nhất, nâng cao tốc độ làm bài và tránh bỡ ngỡ trong ngày thi chính thức. Đăng ký tư vấn để nhận lộ trình miễn phí ngay!

Tổng kết

Qua bài viết, bạn đã thực hành làm đề thi mẫu VSTEP sát format kèm đáp án chi tiết. Việc luyện tập với đề mẫu không chỉ giúp làm quen dạng đề mà còn rèn kỹ năng quản lý thời gian và chiến lược làm bài hiệu quả. Nếu biết khai thác đề thi đúng cách và ôn tập có lộ trình, bạn hoàn toàn có thể nâng cao điểm số và tự tin bước vào kỳ thi VSTEP. Hãy bắt đầu luyện đề ngay hôm nay để đạt mục tiêu chứng chỉ mong muốn.

>> Có thể bạn quan tâm:

• Chứng chỉ VSTEP là gì? Tất tần tật những điều cần biết
• Chữa đề thi thật VSTEP Đại học Hà Nội mới
• Tổng hợp các đề mẫu Speaking VSTEP mới nhất